JFRD Standard Operating Guideline (SOG) Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• What is the standard issue radio for the JFRD?
• All personnel operating at a crime scene are subject to what legal process?
• The blue light stations house switches that perform which action at the affected station?
• Which statement about the 800 mhz tier 3 radios for administrative and chief officers is true?
• Which organization has a portable repeater that can be placed on the vessel for communications?
• Where is the Fire Control Plan likely to be found?
• Which FRL indicates a fire situation that is expected to be difficult, with potential carryover from the previous day and new fires starting?
• 24-36 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• Which agency is listed as having jurisdiction over marine hazmat incidents, making them an exception to command?
• Hoistway doors are provided with which feature to allow emergency access?
• Access to the downed firefighter should use which approach?
• Which is the second type of decon described?
• What method is used on the radio for the benefit of surrounding units?
• During a hurricane watch, which action is listed?
• O&M Center stands for which of the following?
• In an active assailant incident, casualty collection point is best described as a location where:
• Which system enables direct communication between FRCC and other county agencies?
• The Y-Junction area track sections are hydraulically operated and electronically actuated. After power shutdown, these sections are considered what type of hazards?
• An MCI is an incident that strains response due to the number and severity of the casualties. Which elements are overwhelmed?
• What are the three distinct hazmat zones?
• Command is transferred only when which condition has been met?
• Minimum rehab time after using a single 45-minute SCBA or 40 minutes of intense work without SCBA is:
• Which channel is used for Nassau Fire/Rescue (dispatch)?
• Which item is not listed as information FRCC will obtain about a hazmat incident?
• Which approach increases the chances of saving lives and property during a fire?
• Which of the following best represents the factors that dictate the needed response to an aircraft incident?
• Under these conditions the max mph over the posted speed limit is authorized.
• In engine-room fires, the foam should be applied to sustain a duration of how many minutes?
• Hurricane: JFRD activities will fall primarily under which branch of the EOC operations section?
• Synthetic-based hydraulic fluid is typically found in which quantity throughout the aircraft?
• PDP stands for what in the Skyway Express system?
• In Level 2 staging, the area where apparatus and resources are held is called what?
• How long after initial dispatch does FRCC rebroadcast the assigned talk group?
• Which statement describes the passing rule when the lead vehicle is having mechanical difficulties?
• The initial assignment dispatched is dictated by which of the following?
• FRL 4 fire situation may include carryover from the previous day and new fires starting. Which FRL describes this?
• Extinguishers for electrical fires in elevator equipment should be rated for which class?
• Which description defines Alert 1?
• All structure fires require at least how many squads assigned as RIT?
• Who designates a safety officer when personnel operate in a potentially hazardous atmosphere or other dangerous operations?
• The delineation of hazmat zones is part of incident readiness and response planning for hazardous materials incidents, emphasizing safety and control.
• What should the RIT OIC do to assess exterior access and delays?
• Who tests and certifies safe use of SCBA and face pieces, and how is it evaluated?
• How often should rope inspections be noted in the rope log?
• Draft marks are located forward, midship, and aft on most vessels. Which statement best describes their locations?
• Which statement best describes the purpose of the W4 signal's minimum apparatus?
• In an active assailant incident, the appropriate what will be dispatched?
• What is the audio cue that indicates a Mayday event?
• What component is automatically released by a cam on the elevator car when the car is within a few inches of floor level?
• Which procedure completes the transfer of command?
• Where is the Y-Junction located?
• Which boat features a landing craft design?
• Which pair of channels is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• Which asset is described as a mud boat?
• JFRD's responsibility during a Bomb/WMD investigation is which two functions only?
• Ballistic vests and helmets are only to be worn when directed by which position?
• The red phone system will do what?
• Which option is NOT a listed case for automatic W4 signal?
• ARFF units utilize the Cecil ground channel to communicate with which facility?
• Which statement is least aligned with standard confined space entry requirements?
• A secondary RIT consists of which units?
• The key to personnel tracking is which role?
• Which device is used to locate heat signatures through smoke during shipboard fires?
• Power failures at the station shall be reported to which entity?
• What is the most common form of rope destruction?
• Which boat is equipped with CBRNE monitoring equipment?
• Which description defines Alert 3?
• The element that shall be established on all extrication scenes?
• Which factor is the most potentially destructive force in a major hurricane?
• What should drivers know about an emergency vehicle's approach?
• During the initial response in ICS, radio communications should use which designations?
• Which station has a Jon boat on lift?
• How should the emergency alarm button be reset after the emergency ends?
• Which item is NOT part of the ATU landing zone criteria?
• Who communicates with the victim on the radio talk group?
• Which item is not listed as engine RIT equipment?
• Which item is NOT listed as safety equipment for the ground guide during ATU operations?
• Which category is described as catastrophic damage?
• During periods of heavy radio traffic, non-emergency status changes should be conducted via which method?
• In kernmantle rope, the outer sheath provides approximately what percent of tensile strength?
• The first ladder at all structure fires is designated as which of the following?
• Citations may be issued if open burning occurs within how many feet of an active runway at an approved public airport?
• Nothing showing generally requires what by the first arriving unit?
• What is the hydrostatic testing interval for air cascade storage cylinders and carbon fiber SCBA cylinders?
• Hydrant 1 at JIA is located where?
• Who determines the area to stage the RIT crew after reporting to IC?
• Which statement best describes the Metro-Jax talkgroup?
• Which factor dictates the resources necessary for efficient command operations?
• In this context, ARFF OIC refers to which role?
• Under what condition can stations 16 and 56 avoid a transfer engine?
• NOT listed as equipment ladder companies shall bring?
• Emergency walkways are provided on which side of the Skyway cars?
• Which action is part of the hurricane alert checklist?
• Level 1 staging is employed for incidents that require what?
• Which boat is not listed as having a heated/air conditioned patient care area?
• FRL 3 indicates what?
• Secondary search is performed after which action to absolutely confirm the presence or absence of victims?
• The hazardous areas around jet engines are dependent on which factor?
• With the addition of portable radios for all members, the JFRD will:
• Which role on scene is responsible for life safety and determining if the involved building is tenable for interior operations?
• What does LCES stand for in wildland fire safety?
• If necessary to travel in center or oncoming lanes, the max permissible speed shall be the -
• FRCC will contact field units via which method?
• Where are the nickel-cadmium (nicad) batteries located?
• Which item is a post-landfall operational focus?
• Which type of arrival shall always have priority?
• Who designates Level 2 staging officer and the formal staging area?
• What is the purpose of the Metro-Jax talkgroup?
• Subdivisions of incidents may be called what?
• If there are 2 entry/exit points into the confined space, what ventilation arrangement may be provided at one entry/exit and to the other?
• For commercial land clearing using an Air Curtain Incinerator, the burn must be at least how many feet away from occupied buildings?
• What is the status label when the FIN is connected to the 800 MHz radio system to enable mutual aid communication?
• Which mph range defines Category 1 hurricane?
• Permitted land clearing is allowed from 0900 until what time?
• During a shipboard fire/incident, which role has ultimate authority for safety?
• Which item must never be used in a confined space?
• What is the maximum systolic blood pressure according to SOG 436 rehab?
• During softening operation the RIT should maintain a - member team including themselves, uncommitted for rapid deployment and reduced fatigue.
• Which boat has a beam of 10'5?
• Requests for station equipment problems shall be submitted through or by calling which location and number?
• What are the two phases in which searches occur on the fireground in this guideline?
• Field personnel shall inform FRCC as soon as the power is restored. Which entity should be informed?
• Activating the orange emergency alarm button on all radio positions in FRCC sets off an alarm and displays what?
• What is the minimum ATU landing zone size?
• What is the purpose of incident command?
• What is the correct sequence regarding hot zone commitment and decontamination capabilities?
• According to MCI 413, which FOGs are defined for incident management?
• The decon team is comprised of which station?
• Open burning of land clearing debris within how many feet of any public highway or road?
• The control room inside the Skyway Express control center building is located on which floor?
• How often shall the air quality from compressors, cascade storage cylinders, and related equipment be tested?
• Daily soil moisture readings used to determine the drought index are taken by which agency?
• What is the total vehicle capacity of Skyway cars?
• When is the decon team dispatched?
• When completing JFRD Rehab Form 1, include which item?
• In derailments, what equipment should be adequate to force entry into cars?
• Which entity shall have command and control for barricaded subjects or hostage situations?
• Who is ultimately responsible for accountability at all incidents?
• NFPA standard for a 2-person load is which of the following?
• The Incident Commander must assume responsibility for which of the following?
• The decontamination zone is located in which zone and extends from which zone to which zone?
• Which of the following is an exception to JFRD's authority to assume command of a hazmat incident?
• What is the primary consideration in size-up of a hazmat incident and the prime responsibility of the first arriving unit?
• If communications are not available during a hurricane and a staff member took leave, after how many hours will they be considered not reporting?
• Defensive attack is directed at which of the following?
• Which boat has a fire pump rated at 1500 GPM?
• Transformers at the control center and each substation supply power to which?
• When completing JFRD Rehab Form 2, include which item?
• Which channel is designated for EMS East?
• What is the primary purpose of the Announcement group?
• The last resort method for removing a victim from an elevator is through which means?
• What wind speed defines a Category 5 hurricane with catastrophic damage?
• Back up FRCC is located at which location?
• Which statement describes the function of the A1 channel?
• Which units will be dispatched to manage the rehabilitation process?
• Assumption of command is discretionary for which ranks?
• Whose responsibility is tracking personnel on a scene?
• Which item is included in ladder RIT equipment used for locating in smoky conditions?
• In hurricane watch procedures, which action is part of the listed items?
• To ensure rapid and efficient control of hazmat incidents, the JFRD incident commander should utilize the expertise of which group?
• How many blue light stations are on each station loading platform?
• Which asset is at station 40?
• A crank for manual operation is provided in which part of the elevator system?
• Before attempting fire control in an elevator machine room, what action must be secured?
• Which channel would you use for EMS West communications?
• Shipboard Fire/Incident: The ultimate authority and responsibility for safety lies with which role?
• The Florida interoperability network (FIN) radio is used to do what?
• Hydrant 3 at Cecil airport is located where?
• What type is the rope used by JFRD for all utility and safety lines?
• In the combined territories of stations 1, 2, 4, 5, and 9, how many engines and ladders are maintained?
• Which category is associated with devastating damage?
• After the first arriving unit reports 'situation stable', additional units shall continue response with which of the following?
• Which notifications shall generate the 10 minute increment notification from FRCC?
• When the ATU is on the ground, which practice is recommended regarding personnel?
• Who can issue evacuation orders for the public?
• During extended operations, how much fluid should each individual drink per hour?
• Aircraft emergencies are divided into how many categories?
• Train derailments: primary concern of JFRD personnel should be the
• Rescue 16 is not to be used as a transfer company. Which option correctly answers which Rescue unit this applies to?
• In active assailant incidents, JFRD will not approach the scene until which conditions are met?
• The doors of Skyway cars have tempered glass windows; the remaining windows are made of which material?
• To transmit and receive using this repeater, JFRD radios must be set to which channel?
• Which option is included on Rehab Form 2?
• Train derailments: primary concern of railroad personnel on scene may be to-
• What is the exception to the rule requiring tac support consultation before pulling a stuck vehicle?
• Which acronym denotes the airport authority responsible for owning and operating the airport?
• In a fire in an elevator machine room, extinguishers should be used for which class fires?
• Which sequence is true for FRCC alerts and roll call during a Mayday?
• MCI 413: establish command fog - which Fog?
• Before the vehicle is permitted to move, who will confirm that all personnel and riders are on board, PPE if necessary, and wearing seatbelts?
• Available units shall acknowledge by advising on the appropriate talk group which message?
• Which of the following is NOT a general decontamination method?
• Under less than favorable conditions the maximum permissible speed is the posted speed limit; if necessary to travel in the center or oncoming lanes, the max permissible speed shall be -
• A critical aspect of hazmat response is which of the following?
• Which channel is designated for Dispatch?
• A confined space is defined as a space that is not intended for continuous occupancy, has limited openings for entry and exit, and has unfavorable natural ventilation. Which option best matches this definition?
• What is the required ratio of the Rescue/Entry Team (RIT) members to the entry team members for a confined space incident?
• Who should be contacted for consultation before attempting to pull out any JFRD vehicle which has become stuck?
• How many decon types are described in the material?
• The goal of triage is to quickly identify those victims who are in the most need of rapid treatment and transport, and to determine where they are found in less than 60 seconds.
• Sirens should be used to warn traffic with minimal disturbance. Which option best describes this guideline?
• Which channel is used for dispatch?
• The entry point should be which of the following?
• Which hazard must be considered by the first arriving engine related to lines?
• The confined space should be ventilated so that levels of combustibles do not exceed what and toxic substances do not reach what?
• Which Fog number outlines the duties of the staging officer?
• Who is responsible for designating the entry point within a Rapid Intervention Team operation?
• Level 2 staging will require designation of a what and formal what?
• What are the most effective products for reducing germs on the hands of healthcare providers?
• Which mph range defines Category 4 hurricane?
• When the first arriving ladder is assigned to a structure fire, which consideration for ladder placement is listed?
• Which position receives deficiency reports from the station captain?
• Active assailant incidents: Incidents are often over before law enforcement arrives, usually within:
• 36-60 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• Units must be evacuated how many hours prior to landfall?
• All corrective measures for the hurricane season checklist are to be completed prior to which date?
• Before committing JFRD personnel to a hazmat incident, which factors must be considered?
• Groups are designated by
• To protect passengers during a machine room fire, which action should be taken?
• NPV in ventilation terms stands for?
• In addition to MDTs, which method can units use to acknowledge dispatch?
• Which channel designates EMS West and is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• Engulfment in a confined space is defined as the surrounding and effective capture of a person by what?
• Which asset is described as a mud boat?
• How many water supply sources should be established at shipboard fires?
• What is a primary effect of activating the orange emergency alarm button?
• Which stations are covered at all times?
• What is the minimum clearance required for the ATU approach path?
• Which item is listed for engine RIT equipment but not listed for ladder or squad?
• The FM-200 extinguishing system is used in which areas of the Skyway building?
• Which FRL indicates a fire situation is extreme and the ability to respond will exceed district capability, with outside assistance needed beyond a 24-hour period?
• A roll call will be initiated when which condition exists?
• If there is only 1 entry/exit point into the confined space, what should be placed in the confined space and what should be applied?
• Rope Log includes which of the following items?
• JFRD SCBAs meet the requirements of which NFPA standard?
• Units in quarters will acknowledge receipt of dispatch by performing one of the following in descending order. Which action is listed first?
• Subdividing incidents leaders may be called by which titles?
• Which statement best reflects how incident complexity affects ICS deployment?
• In a mayday call, LIP stands for which of the following?
• Who is responsible to assure gross decon is established and oversee the gross decon area?
• How many primary hydrants are there at JIA for ARFF apparatus refill?
• Which zone is the cold zone?
• Can the Announcement group receive transmissions?
• Which element must be attached to every entrant's harness?
• What is prohibited in the area where the SCBA face piece seals with the face?
• In the described system, which vehicle is used to supply compressed air for filling SCBA cylinders?
• What action should RIT take with doors and windows as they move through the structure?
• Where should contaminated uniforms be delivered for processing?
• Suppression apparatus assigned to which teams shall not be used as transfer companies?
• In hazmat operations, the warm zone is restricted to which items?
• A11 and A12 frequencies are best described as what kind and distance?
• What is the maximum pressure for supplying the international shore connection at the flange?
• The breakers located inside equipment rooms at each substation supply power to which components?
• What is the proper order of the first three hurricane stages in their occurrence?
• What precedes all dispatches of units in quarters?
• During a hurricane watch, designated stations should what?
• Unless rescue is required, the incident commander should not commit personnel to the hot zone until what is available?
• For structure fires, when does the 10 minute increment timer begin?
• The ICS is a management process enabling -
• If available, what is the best entry route onto the aircraft for victim rescue or interior fire attack?
• Which item is specified as engine company equipment for shipboard fires?
• Who shall walk completely around the structure making note of openings and problems delaying deployment?
• When hands are not visibly dirty, which method is preferred for cleaning your hands in the healthcare setting?
• What does NiCad stand for?
• Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) is carried by which units?
• Which boat has a length of 70' 10?
• When does hurricane season run?
• Which station has a Jon boat on lift?
• When a downed firefighter is found, what is the most important action?
• Do sirens automatically grant the right of way to emergency vehicles?
• FRL 2 indicates what about anticipated fires and resource use?
• Divisions may be designated as follows, except which option is NOT a division designation?
• The degree of decontamination is determined by which group?
• In a residential structure fire, how many engines constitute the primary suppression apparatus?
• How many unique vessel types are listed among the assets?
• In a wildland fire, a structure may be deemed hopeless when which condition exists?
• Which factor is used to determine the needed response to an aircraft incident?
• From what angle should you typically approach military aircraft to avoid hazards posed by armament, fusible plugs, and navigational aids?
• The drought index ranges from 0 to 800. Which option correctly shows this range?
• Who makes the determination regarding entry into a bomb perimeter?
• In fast attack situations, what is required to stabilize the situation?
• Which asset is the lift-equipped vessel?
• Emergency response does not absolve the operator to drive with what?
• Who is the ultimate decision maker over all port matters?
• Rehab 37 will be dispatched on which triggers?
• Establishing incident command is required by which of the following?
• Fireground operations must be structured around the completion of which process?
• Who maintains the integrity of the Action Circle on extrication scenes?
• Which color code indicates Deceased in MCI triage?
• When the drought index reaches 400 or higher, the fire needs to be checked daily until it is cold. The question: how often should checks be performed until it is cold?
• Which option represents all defined alert levels for aircraft incidents?
• Command will be established on all wildland fires involving FRL or greater?
• FRCC shall repeat which transmissions from field units?
• FRL 1 indicates what about fire activity?
• In a commercial structure fire, how many engines constitute the primary suppression apparatus?
• Debris off-site burning requires using what device and permit?
• Which boat has a length of 37 feet?
• An Attendant at a Confined Space incident is the person in charge of the hot zone and is responsible for:
• If possible, what should responders do to gather hazard information from the source on scene?
• Who notifies the Air Traffic Control Tower when Alert 1 is terminated?
• What is the minimum diastolic blood pressure within the SOG 436 rehab range?
• Which MCI trailer carries equipment for IMMEDIATE needs on JIA property?
• Extended response ICS is characterized by _____.
• Non-display radios can access only the first 3 ABC.
• Prior to evacuation on all fire alarm responses, which should be considered?
• Which units, being quicker and more maneuverable, may pass slower units?
• To minimize disturbance of evidence at a crime scene, responders should move in and out along what kind of path?
• Which are general methods used for decontamination?
• Which asset is at station 42?
• What kind of maintenance program is essential for the reliable long-term operation of JFRD SCBAs?
• The Digital Vehicular Repeater System (DVRS) is best described as which of the following?
• In the hurricane alert checklist, which action is listed?
• What is the most potentially destructive force of a major hurricane?
• Which agency assigns the frequency used by the ground guide to contact the ATU?
• During a Mayday incident, FRCC will activate which alert?
• In ATU operations, what call sign is often used to contact the ATU?
• What is the primary objective when selecting the entry point?
• Which areas are served by the FM-200 extinguishing system—Control Room, Computer Room, and Signal Room?
• FRCC will conduct roll call by calling which group first?
• To help identify the hazard, personnel should check for which of the following?
• Administrative and chief officers have programmable portable radios that are capable of scanning multiple flights and talk groups simultaneously.
• When a hazmat incident is reported, FRCC will obtain information including which of the following?
• Which of the following is listed as an incident category that the special ops team responds to?
• What is the function of D and E flight?
• A11 and A12 are conventional simplex radio frequencies used for short-range communication within distances of 1 mile. Which option describes this?
• Urgent station equipment repairs outside normal business hours that require overtime must be authorized by which position?
• Into what should soiled/contaminated uniforms or protective clothing be placed before processing?
• What phrase accompanies the repeated FRCC transmissions?
• Which statement about Level 2 staging is true?
• Which boat has the highest fire pump capacity?
• Open burning causing excessive visible emissions is defined as opacity equal to or greater than what percentage?
• All personnel entering a confined space must don which combination of PPE and equipment?
• In the MCI RPM-P protocol, how should major bleeding be handled?
• If it is suspected that an incident was caused by a bomb, when can JFRD personnel enter the perimeter?
• Immediately after identifying the hazard, which shall be established?
• A wildland fire is considered contained when there is what?
• Gross decon is performed in which location?
• Which statement correctly describes the DVRS's channel switching process?
• W4 signal: The minimum apparatus assigned to the W4 signal will be which of the following?
• Train derailments: FRCC keeps rail maps with mile markers to aid in locating incidents. What item is kept to aid locating derailments?
• Jet engines have both hazard zones when the engines are running or idle. Which zones are these?
• Which channel is primarily used on marine incidents involving multiple agencies and not monitored by FRCC?
• Units equipped with MDTs will maintain response status via which method?
• If a response is not received from a dispatched unit within 15 seconds, FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by what means?
• How many spare SCBA bottles should companies bring per person, not including the initial attack team?
• Which statement best describes the two unit categories assigned to a structure fire?
• According to SOG 436 rehab, what is the acceptable diastolic blood pressure range?
• In a confined space, product identification is critical to evaluate hazards to rescuers and victims; therefore the Hazmat team should be called as soon as what is recognized?
• A11 and A12 are associated with which agencies?
• The time involved in implementing ICS should produce time savings, through -
• Which statement about secondary search is true?
• Which MCI role is responsible for triage duties?
• Hanna Park is not monitored by FRCC on which channel?
• Tac Support is not routinely monitored by FRCC on which channel?
• Extended response ICS is implemented when an operation may _____.
• Which FRL requires outside assistance beyond a 24 hour period?
• Before using the last resort method, ensure that which has been disconnected?
• During emergency runs, siren use should be limited to between which hours?
• With a safety factor of 15:1 accounted for, the actual usable capacity of the line is what?
• In bomb incidents, which scenario is listed as an exception to the perimeter entry restriction?
• The - will designate a radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation.
• In the RPM triage method, after attempting to open the airway, if spontaneous respiration resumes, what tag should be assigned?
• An MCI is an incident resulting from what?
• How many primary hydrants are there at Cecil airport?
• Which mph range defines Category 2 hurricane?
• In which situation should the state fire marshal be requested due to potential danger or severity?
• Which statement best describes FRL 5?
• If the IC decides an additional alarm is needed for a single family residence, it should be called for when?
• Units housed in structures not suitable for winds above what mph must be evacuated?
• Which asset is at station 32?
• On what date of each year does the station captain report deficiencies to the Battalion Chief through chain of command?
• Blue light stations must be activated on which sides of the emergency as well as the station involved?
• Which statement best captures the decontamination decision factors: health hazards, skin effects, toxicity, reactivity, solubility?
• What is the correct order of reporting from the first person to the next official when a suspected infectious disease is involved?
• During hours when there is no operator on duty, the Skyway Express will be in which state?
• Level 2 staging is employed for what type of incidents?
• For elevator incidents (except stuck-door calls), which entities should be called to the scene?
• All dispatches of units on an Available status will be preceded by what?
• The use of ICS is mandatory on ______.
• The fluid is under high pressure and has an extremely high ignition temperature; Which statement best describes this?
• The elevation in some areas of the San Marco section exceeds how many feet?
• SAR is required under which condition during confined space entry?
• Which boat has a beam of 22 feet?
• Only the patient or the complainant may request cancellation of responding units prior to arrival of JFRD or JSO personnel. Who may request cancellation?
• Drought index is a measure of what?
• In MCI RPM-P protocol, when should a patient be tagged red?
• FRCC shall divert units to other incidents based on the criterion that?
• The incident commander must request the state fire marshal for which condition?
• Whose responsibility is the cleaning, maintenance and storage of the SAR system?
• The 10 minute notifications will continue until FRCC has been advised that which condition?
• For a residential structure fire, the primary suppression apparatus consists of which engines?
• How many chiefs are listed as having DVRS in their vehicles?
• Active assailant incidents: the JFRD apparatus will remain in staging until directed by whom?
• Which boat measures 50 feet in length?
• The success of decon operations is based on which factor?
• Which scenario would trigger a state fire marshal investigation according to the given guidelines?
• What is the function of C flight?
• What is the function of A flight?
• What is a major factor in preserving and protecting crime scenes, and must be maintained to assure the safety of everyone involved?
• Recreational fire is defined as which of the following?
• What should be placed at the entry point to enhance visibility of the escape route?
• If hoistway doors must be forced open to remove passengers, the opening force should be applied at the level of what feature?
• Which component has the ability to shutdown power to the entire Skyway Express system at once or in sections?
• All JFRD vehicles shall be operated in compliance with which statutes?
• A casualty collection point in an active assailant incident is best described as a location where responders can receive patients from law enforcement.
• The incident is considered to be in rescue mode until which event occurs?
• Available units shall acknowledge dispatch by advising on the appropriate talk group for the benefit of surrounding units. What should they advise?
• When the ladder is assigned, what is a primary objective of its placement?
• What voltage do the DC generators in locomotives present an electrical hazard during derailments?
• Hydrant 2 at JIA is located where?
• Because hostage incidents can be of extended duration, deployments are recommended to be limited to how many hours?
• What must the primary suppression apparatus provide at the scene of all structure fires?
• The manual crank for moving the elevator car is located in which part of the system?
• Which chiefs are listed as currently having DVRS in their vehicles?
• Which units are assigned to all incidents involving the decon unit?
• In a confined space, the potential for a flammable atmosphere should be treated as what level of consideration?
• Who determines entry into the bomb perimeter?
• Keeping rope clean helps prevent dirt from shortening its life through what mechanism?
• Which of the following is NOT listed as an IC responsibility?
• In complexes with private hydrants, the third arriving engine should stage where?
• Where are the electronics located in the Skyway cars?
• Which equipment do JFRD personnel wear for respiratory protection?
• In complexes with private hydrants, the third engine should stage on a municipal hydrant outside the complex. Which option states this?
• Which incident category is listed for W3s involving large commercial structures?
• During a hostage situation, all units will respond in what status?
• What is the cycle duration for the decontamination process?
• Which authority should be consulted before performing extrication or metal cutting operations?
• Which tone precedes dispatches of units on an Available status?
• Other vehicles shall not pass each other unless which condition is met?
• What is the purpose of elevator equipment if proper conditions for running are not met?
• After the Health and Safety Officer is notified, who will be notified next?
• What is the overall aim of the interoperability features described?
• Nylon static kernmantle rope becomes sticky at a temperature of about and melts between which temperatures?
• When DVRS is utilized, what action is described?
• Which squad RIT item is used for patient transport?
• What action does the first arriving unit take with respect to ICS?
• Missing personnel are assumed to be what until proven otherwise?
• 84 hours prior to landfall corresponds to which hurricane stage?
• Which boat lists 2 1/2 inch and 5 inch discharges along with one fixed monitor?
• Which MCI trailer carries equipment for LONG TERM needs throughout the region?
• What is recommended for cleaning visibly dirty hands?
• Full treatment for most communicable diseases can be initiated within how many hours without complications?
• HEPA masks are provided to prevent which illnesses?
• All non-emergency status changes will be conducted on which channel?
• The second arriving engine on a structure fire should approach the scene how far?
• Active assailant incidents: The assault usually continues until the assailant is:
• The main reason for subdividing an incident is?
• Which field on the riding list is NOT listed as part of the riding list components?
• For residential land clearing, a burn must be at least how many feet from any occupied building?
• As RIT members move through the structure they should do what?
• What term describes the action to reduce carcinogen exposure during overhaul operations?
• Which color code corresponds to ambulatory (minor) victims?
• Under FRL 2, what is the expected difficulty in control or mop up?
• After the initial report, which role will be notified next?
• Which device is commonly used to assess heat sources inside a burning vessel?
• What type of response is required anytime the SAR system is used?
• Fires in elevator hoistways will generally be which size?
• Establishing command refers to which action?
• Airport Emergency Plan (AEP) stands for?
• Incident command operating requirements include which two elements?
• Open burning must be at least how far from any public highway or road?
• If the wheels on a Skyway car are locked, the brakes can be released by which method?
• What is the definition of Design?
• Within how many seconds must a response be received before FRCC will attempt to contact the unit directly by radio and/or red phone?
• The W4 signal is a policy created to which objective?
• How many power rails power the cars traction motors?
• If using a washing machine to launder rope, what is required?
• Units advising 'available' on A2 without identifying destination will be assumed
• If TRT is not already on scene, should be dispatched as soon as -.
• Which channel is used for Special Events and monitored by FRCC when in use?
• Staging shall be divided into how many levels based on size and complexity?
• One-half inch lifeline has a tensile strength of which value?
• For commercial land clearing, if not using an Air Curtain Incinerator, the burn must be at least how many feet from any occupied building?
• On structures other than small single family residences, an which shall be requested?
• Decontaminated personnel must undergo medical evaluation at what time?
• In the RPM triage method, what tag is assigned if a patient has 31 or more respirations?
• Which asset is NOT listed as a JFRD marine asset?
• Which item is uniquely listed for ladder RIT equipment and involves a specialized saw?
• Which boat has a draft of 3'2?
• Who may cancel ATU after evaluation indicates it is not needed?
• What does the acronym ATCT stand for in these procedures?
• In a hoistway fire, what is the primary hazard?
• During a live Special Event, FRCC monitors which channel?
• These leaders will be assigned to oversee a division or a group. What do they oversee?
• Field personnel are responsible for what task until power is restored?
• Which description defines Alert 2?
• The Announcement group broadcasts to which groups?
• For ladders, the minimum number of utility lines is which of the following?
• Hydrant 1 at Cecil airport is located where?
• Which stage occurs after landfall?
• Pressurized tanks may be found inside which railcar type?
• Who monitors operations as part of incident command in hazmat response?
• In hurricane warning procedures, which action is specified?
• Do not store rope in compartments with or near which items?
• The main power to the skyway station is supplied to substations located at which locations?
• Which statement best describes the SCBA usage during entry?
• Which pair of officials is listed as capable of issuing evacuation orders for the public?
• Wet-soap decon removes up to what percentage of contaminants on PPE?
• The ICS can be subdivided into two stages: which pair?
• The initial MCI level will be based on the estimated numbers prior to what?
• Primary search should be conducted in all involved and exposed occupancies that can be entered. Which option best reflects this guidance?
• Which channel handles suppression incidents requiring four or fewer units and is monitored by FRCC at all times?
• Which boat has a draft of 3' 10?
• The ICS can be subdivided into - stages
• For the ladder, which item is listed as a consideration for placement?
• The Rescue District/Battalion Chief on scene shall ensure that post fire decon is performed for members reporting to rehab. Which option best represents the responsible position?
• Which mph range defines Category 3 hurricane?
• Who coordinates the exposure notification and post-exposure management process for infectious exposure?
• What FRCC announcement follows Alert 3?
• Compressed air in SCBA cylinders shall meet the requirements of which specification?
• Who designates the radio talk group to be used for the RIT operation?
• The DVRS provides which benefit in challenging structure types?
• Which ladder RIT equipment item uses a specialized blade?
• Where is the Skyway Express control center building located?
• How many items comprise the JFRD riding list?
• Who is the only person who communicates with the ATU, with ground guide contacting ATU via FRCC frequency?
• What is the function of B flight?
• Which guidelines should be followed when cleaning PPE?
• If conditions warrant an unscheduled evacuation of the station, the officer in charge will notify which position first?
• Which directional area around jet engines should generally be avoided?
• Which statement describes the Jacksonville lifeguards' radio setup?
• Primary search should be conducted in which areas?
• According to SOG 436 rehab, what is the acceptable systolic blood pressure range?
• Administrative and chief officers have programmable portable radios that are capable of which tier?
• Which ladder item involves a heavy duty cutting tool?
• In wildland fire structural protection, what is the maximum allowed hose lay length?
• Which option is a listed consideration for ladder placement regarding the jack deployment?
• Who defines aircraft emergencies to provide standard descriptions and terminology?
• When washing rope, it should be washed in which type of water and with what additive?
• MCI 413: first arriving unit duties correspond to which FOG?
• SCBAs compliance is based on which NFPA standard?
• Prior permission must be obtained before ARFF apparatus leave the airport property from whom?
• Which statement is true about rehab procedures after intense work?
• Which channel is used for dispatch coordination between Nassau Fire/Rescue and other agencies?
• Which list comprises the five hurricane stages?
• Which channel is described as not routinely monitored by FRCC?
• The RIT group OIC will designate an entry point based on what?
• Draft marks: when firefighting operations are ongoing, the location where water touches the draft marks should be noted at which times?
• Which radio system does JFRD primarily use for communications?
• Initial response ICS is implemented within the ____ of an incident.
• In hostage incidents, which entity shall notify relief companies to allow for preparation and travel time?
• Tac support contact numbers are which of the following?
• PPV in confined space ventilation stands for?
• When encountering an untested confined space, personnel should assume the atmosphere is:
• After a report of 'situation stable', which statement best describes how additional units should proceed?
• An employee suspects someone has an infectious disease. To whom should they report first?
• Which group uses a differently programmed radio system specifically for lifeguards in Jacksonville?
• Colored ribbons for MCI color coding-CD mapping: Red-Immediate; Yellow-Delayed; Green-Ambulatory; Black-Deceased. Which option lists this color mapping correctly?
• Where may waybills be located?
• In MCI RPM-M, what tag is used when the victim follows commands and is AOx4?
• What structure is established to coordinate multi-agency responsibilities and stakeholder interests during a vessel fire?
• During a W4 response, why is rehab important?
• ARFF units communicate with Air Traffic Control Tower via which ground channel?
• When companies are assigned to spare units, who shall be responsible for the vehicle and its equipment?
• Which agency is identified as the Captain of the Port in the context of port safety and security?
• In a kernmantle rope, the load-carrying core provides approximately what percent of tensile strength?
• In vessel fires, what is a major concern affecting the rotation intervals between entry teams?
• The _____ is the final authority for the incident.
• Which entity owns and operates the airport and is the controlling entity for all airport operations?
• The size of the decon zone is determined by which factor?
• What is the term for the decon process used to rapidly reduce contaminants on skin and clothing?
• During extended operations in ICS, supervising personnel will be referred to by their what?
• In these guidelines, what does transfer refer to with suppression apparatus?
• Which statement best defines Carelessness as used in the investigative context?
• What is the purpose of the Action Circle on extrication scenes?
• Under the NIMS model, who will establish command at the emergency operations center?
• Which squad item is used for signaling or lighting?
• The special operations team is comprised of which fire stations?
• Exceed posted speed limit only under - defined as
• The fast attack mode should be brief lasting how long?